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Intra-abdominal infection and peritonitis

Primary peritonitis (SBP in cirrhosis) is treated with antibiotics alone, but secondary peritonitis — from a perforation or a leak — requires source control (surgery or drainage) as early as possible; after good source control about 4 days of antibiotics are enough.

Why it matters in the exam

Questions first test the distinction between the three types: primary (SBP) — in a cirrhotic patient with ascites, a single organism, ascitic neutrophils of 250 or more, antibiotics only; secondary — organ perforation, anastomotic leak or abscess, mixed infection, treated by source control; and tertiary — persistent or recurrent infection in an ICU patient after previous treatment, with resistant bacteria and fungi. An important trap is a cirrhotic patient in whom "SBP" is really a perforation — fluid with several organisms, high protein, low glucose and high LDH requires CT.

The second part is treatment: in a septic patient source control should be achieved promptly, usually within a few hours; a contained abscess is drained percutaneously, and generalised peritonitis needs surgery. Antibiotics cover Gram-negative organisms and anaerobes, and the STOP-IT trial showed that after adequate source control about 4 days are enough — longer courses do not improve outcome. Persisting fever or leucocytosis after treatment calls for CT to look for a residual abscess, not just longer antibiotics.

Key points

Summary table

TypeBackground and findingsTreatment
Primary (SBP)Cirrhosis with ascites; ascitic neutrophils 250 or more; single organismAntibiotics (ceftriaxone) and albumin; no surgery
SecondaryPerforation, anastomotic leak, abscess; mixed infectionSource control (surgery or drainage) and antibiotics for about 4 days after control
TertiaryICU patient, infection persisting after treatmentSearch for a source, cultures, cover for resistant bacteria and fungi
Contained abscessLocalised collection on CTPercutaneous drainage and antibiotics
Suspected perforation in a cirrhotic patientSeveral organisms in the fluid, glucose below 50 mg/dL, protein above 1 g/dL, high LDHCT and surgery according to the finding

A free exam question

A 72-year-old male is brought to the ER due to left lower quadrant abdominal pain with fever of 38.5°C. On examination - left lower quadrant peritonitis. Blood pressure 120/80 mmHg, pulse 90/min. WBC – 15,000. Abdominal CT demonstrates thickening of the sigmoid and adjacent 5 cm fluid collection with small air bubble. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

  1. A. Laparotomy and sigmoid resection
  2. B. Laparoscopic Hartmann’s procedure and abscess drainage
  3. C. Percutaneous abscess drainage
  4. D. Laparoscopic abdominal cavity lavage

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Sources

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Reviewed by the Examqo AI Professor · 2026-11-02. The text may contain errors; when in doubt, check the source.